Florida and Texas Practice Tests
Practice Tests for the Texas Academic Skills Program Reading Test
Passage I
 

How Did Latin America Get Its Name?

1 There are some justifications for labeling Central and South America “Latin America.” “Latin” suggests that certain important aspects of the culture spring from the cultural tradition of ancient Rome, and, in fact, most of “Latin America” was long ruled by either Spain or Portugal, both of which are “Latin” countries. Most “Latin Americans” today speak Spanish or Portugese, both languages descended from ancient Latin, and most of the peoples there belong to the Roman Catholic church. Italy itself, however, played no historic role in “Latin America.” Why, then, don’t we call “Latin America” “Luso-Hispanic America”? (“Luso” meaning Portugese because today’s Portugal was the ancient Lusitania) or “Ibero-America”? The more one thinks about the term “Latin America,” the more mysterious its origin becomes.
2 The truth is that the term “Latin America” originated as political propaganda. During the U.S. Civil War, France’s Emperor Napoleon III thought he saw an opportunity to take over Mexico. France had never had any colonial interests there, but Napoleon invaded on the pretext that France, a Latin nation, was avenging military humiliations suffered by the Spanish and was therefore “defending Latin honor.” On July 3, 1862, Napoleon published a letter in the French newspaper Le Moniteur introducing the term “Latin America” to justify what was really French imperialist aggression. Eventually the French were defeated and retreated, but Napoleon’s sly propagandistic term long survived him. (Bergman, Edward F. Human Geography: Cultures, Connections, & Landscapes. Englewood Cliffs, NJ: Prentice, 1995, p. 165)

      38. In this passage, the word avenging is used to mean 

 
 
 
 


      39. Based on this passage, you can assume that “Ibero-” refers to  

 
 
 
 


      40. The name “Latin America” was 

 
 
 
 







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